Register
Why do you think rizal wrote the original noli me tangere in spanish, considering that it is the language of the colonizers?.
524,252 views
22 votes
22 votes
Why do you think rizal wrote the original noli me tangere in spanish, considering that it is the language of the colonizers?.

User Pcp
by
3.0k points

1 Answer

26 votes
26 votes
Answer: Noli me Tangere was originally written in Spanish, so the likelihood that Spanish authorities would read it first was very high;which is what Rizal wanted to happen.
User Athul Harikumar
by
3.0k points
Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

1.6m questions

2.0m answers

Other Questions

If a country or group of people do something to another country or group of people, does it affect the rest of the world? Did what King Leopold II do in the Congo affect the US? Does what the U.S. do to
Give me 3 important facts about the Jurassic Period. Thank you
What manufacturing industry did World War II MOST help establish in Texas? A) car manufacturing B) textile manufacturing C) airplane manufacturing Eliminate D) computer manufacturing
What generalization can you make regarding the geographic distribution of results?
As a result of their dissatisfaction with the Catholic Church both Martin and Luther and Henry Vllll
Link Copied!