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A 42-year-old man is placed on a twodrug

regimen to prevent the activation of the
tuberculosis
bacteria, as his tuberculin skin test
(PPD) was positive, but he shows no clinical
signs of tuberculosis, and his chest X-ray is
negative.
One of the drug's mechanism of
action
is to inhibit which one of the following
enzymes?
(A) DNA polymerase
(B) RNA polymerase
(C) Peptidyl transferase
(D) Initiation factor 1 of protein synthesis
(IF-1)
(E) Telomerase

User Foxes
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1 Answer

7 votes

Final answer:

In latent tuberculosis treatment, rifampin is a common drug that inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase, preventing RNA synthesis and bacterial replication.

Step-by-step explanation:

A 42-year-old man with a positive tuberculin skin test and no active clinical signs of tuberculosis is often placed on a prophylactic regimen to prevent the activation of the tuberculosis bacteria. One of the drugs included in the treatment regimen, such as rifampin, works by inhibiting an enzyme crucial for the bacterial reproduction. Specifically, rifampin inhibits RNA polymerase, an enzyme essential for the transcription process in bacteria, thus preventing the bacteria from synthesizing RNA and replicating further. This type of treatment is vital in managing latent tuberculosis infection, as it reduces the risk of developing active tuberculosis and the potential spread of the disease.

User Ranganatha
by
8.1k points