194k views
4 votes
A 20-year-old nulliparous woman presents requesting birth control pills. She received the HPV vaccine series last year, and had her first sexual encounter last month. Otherwise, she is in good health and is a non-smoker. Her pelvic examination reveals normal external genitalia, and a nulliparous cervix without discharge or mucosal lesions. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the appropriate screening recommendation for this patient?

A. Return next year for a Pap smear
B. Return in three years for a Pap smear
C. Perform a Pap smear now
D. Perform HPV testing
E. Perform colposcopy

User Matt Todd
by
8.4k points

1 Answer

2 votes

Final answer:

Michelle's physician orders both a Pap smear and an HPV test to assess her risk of cervical cancer and HPV infection more comprehensively.

Step-by-step explanation:

Michelle's physician orders both a Pap smear and an HPV test because each test serves a different purpose in screening for cervical cancer and HPV infection. A Pap smear examines cells collected from the cervix to check for abnormal changes that may indicate the presence of cervical cancer. On the other hand, an HPV test detects the presence of the human papillomavirus, which is the primary cause of cervical cancer. By performing both tests, Michelle's physician can get a more complete picture of her cervical health and make informed recommendations about her future screenings and potential vaccination against HPV.

User Justin Warkentin
by
8.5k points
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.