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You overhear someone say *Well, the Europeans that settled the United States in the Colonial Era were all of equal status and wealth." What would you say to prove them wrong? Use at least one piece of data from the chart to really prove your point.

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I would say that the statement is not accurate and can be proven wrong by looking at historical records and data. For example, the chart on "Distribution of Wealth in the American Colonies in 1774" shows that a small percentage of the population controlled a disproportionate amount of wealth. The top 10% of the population controlled about 50% of the wealth, while the bottom 50% controlled only about 10%. This data clearly demonstrates that there was a significant wealth disparity among the European settlers in the American colonies, with a small group of wealthy individuals and a large group of less wealthy individuals. This disproves the idea that all European settlers in the Colonial Era were of equal status and wealth.

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