39.4k views
3 votes
Explain why Rolle's Theorem does not apply to the function even though there exist a and b such that f(a) = f(b).

f(x) = cot (x/2) , [π, 9π]

User Carson Pun
by
8.0k points

1 Answer

1 vote
this may help you

he functión Cot[x/2] is not continuos in the points x=2nπ, where n=0,1,2,3,... You can check it with a calculator. So the function is not continuos in the domain the problem gives you, so the Rolle's theorem can not be applied. If the inteverval was, [π/2,3π/2] Then we could apply the Rolle's theorem.

User Han Bing
by
7.8k points
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories