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4 votes
NCr/nPr=r!
give proof.

1 Answer

6 votes
That's not true. If
n\mathrm Cr and
n\mathrm Pr are defined as


n\mathrm Cr=(n!)/(r!(n-r)!)

n\mathrm Pr=(n!)/((n-r)!)

then


(n\mathrm Cr)/(n\mathrm Pr)=((n!)/(r!(n-r)!))/((n!)/((n-r)!))=\frac1{r!}
User Itsho
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