204k views
0 votes
Identify the expression for calculating the mean of a binomial distribution.

User Petur
by
7.8k points

1 Answer

6 votes
A random variable
X following a binomial distribution with success probability
p across
n trials has PMF


\mathbb P(X=x)=\begin{cases}\dbinom nxp^x(1-p)^(n-x)&\text{for }x\in\{0,1,\ldots,n\}\\\\0&\text{otherwise}\end{cases}

where
\dbinom nx=(n!)/(x!(n-x)!).

The mean of the distribution is given by the expected value which is defined by


\mathbb E(X):=\displaystyle\sum_xx\mathbb P(X=x)

where the summation is carried out over the support of
X. So the mean is


\displaystyle\sum_(x=0)^nx\binom nxp^x(1-p)^(n-x)

Because this is a proper distribution, you have


\displaystyle\sum_x\mathbb P(X=x)=1

which is a fact that will be used to evaluate the sum above.


\displaystyle\sum_(x=0)^nx\binom nxp^x(1-p)^(n-x)

\displaystyle\sum_(x=1)^nx\binom nxp^x(1-p)^(n-x)

\displaystyle\sum_(x=1)^n(xn!)/(x!(n-x)!)p^x(1-p)^(n-x)

\displaystyle np\sum_(x=1)^n((n-1)!)/((x-1)!(n-x)!)p^(x-1)(1-p)^(n-x)

\displaystyle np\sum_(x=1)^n((n-1)!)/((x-1)!((n-1)-(x-1))!)p^(x-1)(1-p)^((n-1)-(x-1))

Letting
y=x-1, this becomes


\displaystyle np\sum_(y=0)^(n-1)((n-1)!)/(y!((n-1)-y)!)p^y(1-p)^((n-1)-y)

Observe that the remaining sum corresponds to the PMF of a new random variable
Y which also follows a binomial distribution with success probability
p, but this time across
n-1 trials. Therefore the sum evaluates to 1, and you're left with
np as the expression for the mean for
X.
User Reza Mojed
by
8.1k points