menu
Qammunity.org
Login
Register
My account
Edit my Profile
Private messages
My favorites
Ask a Question
Questions
Unanswered
Tags
Categories
Ask a Question
which of the following is not a reason why Western Europe Rose to become the dominant world force in the 15th century?
asked
Aug 19, 2019
59.1k
views
2
votes
which of the following is not a reason why Western Europe Rose to become the dominant world force in the 15th century?
History
high-school
Burton Guster
asked
by
Burton Guster
7.9k
points
answer
comment
share this
share
0 Comments
Please
log in
or
register
to add a comment.
Please
log in
or
register
to answer this question.
1
Answer
3
votes
The correct answer for this question is D.
Around this time, Feudalism WAS being used in this area, so that statement is false.
MosGeo
answered
Aug 26, 2019
by
MosGeo
7.9k
points
ask related question
comment
share this
0 Comments
Please
log in
or
register
to add a comment.
← Prev Question
Next Question →
No related questions found
Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.
9.4m
questions
12.2m
answers
Other Questions
What goal of the constitution was also a goal of the Magna Carta?
is it true or false that after the american revolution conflicts in the northwest territory erupted between remaining british soldiers and native americans
Who made dutch claims in north america?
How did world war 1 affect the racial and ethnic makeup of american cities
What were the positive and negative effects of Egypt being imperialized by Britain.
Twitter
WhatsApp
Facebook
Reddit
LinkedIn
Email
Link Copied!
Copy
Search Qammunity.org