Answer:
yes
Explanation:
It is because you need to times in the answer
3(y+1) mutiply it in!
3times y and 3 times 1
it equals to 3y+3
Yes
The distributive property states that a(b+c) = ab+ac. Working out the first equation, we see that 3(y+1) is 3y+3. Because the second equation is 3y+3, they are also equal.
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