Can the statement be written as a biconditional statement and why?????

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asked Feb 8, 2019 177k views

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Mark Northrop · Answer 1 · 2019-02-15T00:57:37+0000

No. Writing it as a biconditional would mean that "If a number is odd, then it is a prime number" is also true. The original statement is true, but the converse is false.

Can the statement be written as a biconditional statement and why?????

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