2 Answers

Wedge · Answer 1 · 2019-01-18T02:34:09+0000

Answer:

The inequality would be b<50 and it has infinitely many solutions because there are infinitely many numbers that are in the solution set (-infinity, 50)

Explanation:

Shantr · Answer 2 · 2019-01-23T10:14:02+0000

The inequality would be b<50 and it has infinitely many solutions because there are infinitely many numbers that are in the solution set (-infinity, 50)

0 Comments

Please log in or register to add a comment.

Please log in or register to answer this question.

2 Answers

0 Comments

Please log in or register to add a comment.

0 Comments

Please log in or register to add a comment.

Other Questions