134k views
4 votes
If \{A_1, A_2,\dots,A_n\} is a collection of closed subsets of LaTeX: \mathbb{R} , then prove that \cup_{i=1}^{n}A_i is closed in LaTeX: \mathbb{R}

1 Answer

3 votes

Answer:

The proof of this statement depends on the definition of closed set we are using. So, in the following explanation I will use that a subset
A\subset\mathbb{R} is closed if and only if it contains all its limit points.

The first step is to prove the statement for
n=2. So, let us prove that if
A_1,A_2\subset\mathbb{R} are closed, then
A_1\cup A_2 is closed.

Fix
x\in A_1\cup A_2 a limit point then, there exists a sequence
\{x_n\}_(n=1)^\infty\subset A_1\cup A_2 such that
x_n\rightarrow x.

Here we have three possibilities:

First: All the elements of
\{x_n\}_(n=1)^\infty are in
A_1, except for a finite number of elements.

Second: All the elements of
\{x_n\}_(n=1)^\infty are in
A_2, except for a finite number of elements.

Third: There are infinite elements of
\{x_n\}_(n=1)^\infty in
A_1 and in
A_2.

In the first case we have that all the sequence, but a finite number of terms, is contained in
A_1, which is closed. So, the limit of
\{x_n\}_(n=1)^\infty is in
A_1, hence
x\in A_1\cup A_2.

The second case has the same proof, just changing the indices 1 by 2.

The third case is less simpler. Let us call
y_n the part of
\{x_n\}_(n=1)^\infty that is contained in
A_1, and
z_n the part of
\{x_n\}_(n=1)^\infty that is contained in
A_2. As every subsequence of a convergent sequence is also convergent, and to the same limit. So,
z_n\rightarrow x and
y_n\rightarrow x.

Now, as
\{y_n\}\subset A_1 and
\{z_n\}\subset A_2, and both sets are closed, we conclude that
x\in A_1 and
x\in A_2, therefore
x\in A_1\cup A_2.

As the three options give us that
x\in A_1\cup A_2, we deduce that
A_1\cup A_2 is closed.

Finally, with a little inductive step we conclude that
\cup_(i=1)^(n)A_i.

Explanation:

User Mohammad Farhadi
by
6.1k points