Register

In the Middle Ages , why would written libel be potentially more harmful than spoken libel?

In the Middle Ages , why would written libel be potentially more harmful than spoken libel?
42.8k views
1 vote
In the Middle Ages , why would written libel be potentially more harmful than spoken libel?

User TheFungusAmongUs
by
8.6k points

1 Answer

5 votes

Answer: Written defamation/libel could be used as a cause of action in ecclesiastical courts, so they were considered spiritually damaging.

Step-by-step explanation:

User En
by
8.4k points
← Prev Question Next Question →

Related questions

User Patrick DaVader
asked May 10, 2024 51.0k views
Spoken defamatory speech is called: A. Slander B. Libel C. Defamation D. Falsehood
Patrick DaVader asked May 10, 2024
by Patrick DaVader
7.3k points
1 answer
1 vote
51.0k views
Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Other Questions

What goal of the constitution was also a goal of the Magna Carta?
is it true or false that after the american revolution conflicts in the northwest territory erupted between remaining british soldiers and native americans
How did world war 1 affect the racial and ethnic makeup of american cities
What were the positive and negative effects of Egypt being imperialized by Britain.
Why  might  things far away  and  long  ago  be   important   to  us now.
Link Copied!