Answer:
Yes they are logically equivalent
p∧(p→q)≡p∧q
Explanation:
The statements are logically equivalent if they have the same truth tables. So let´s use truth tables in order to determine if they are logically equivalent or not:
The picture that I attached you shows the truth table for each case. As you can see, p∧(p→q) has exactly the same truth values as p∧q. So we can conclude that they are logically equivalent.