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How can this be proved to be a tautology using laws of logical equivalence?

((x ∨ y) ∧ (x → z) ∧ (¬z)) → y

1 Answer

3 votes

Answer:

Explanation:

If we assume that
[(x \vee y) \wedge (x \rightarrow z) \wedge (\\eg z)] is true, then:


(x \vee y) is true


(x \rightarrow z) is true


(\\eg z) is true

If
(\\eg z) is true, then
z is false.


(x \rightarrow z) \equiv (\\eg x \vee z), since
(x \rightarrow z) is true, then
(\\eg x \vee z) is true

If
z is false and
(\\eg x \vee z) is true, then
\\eg x is true.

If
\\eg x is true, then
x is false, as
(x \vee y) is true and
x is false, then
y is true.

Conclusion
y it's true.

User Asetti Sri Harsha
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