99,184 views
4 votes
4 votes
Dividing sin²+ cos²0 = 1 by
yields 1 + cot² Ø = csc²0

User Etranz
by
3.0k points

2 Answers

24 votes
24 votes

Answer: sin²∅

Explanation: If you divide each term by sin squared theta, sin²∅/sin²∅ = 1, cos²∅/sin²∅ = cot²∅, and 1/sin²∅ = csc²∅, which is your result.

User Lungu Daniel
by
3.1k points
15 votes
15 votes

Answer:

sin²θ

Explanation:

To determine what we need to divide
\sin^2 \theta+\cos^2 \theta=1 by to yield
1+\cot^2 \theta=\csc^2\theta, compare equations:


\textsf{Equation 1}: \quad \sin^2 \theta+\cos^2 \theta=1


\textsf{Equation 2}: \quad 1+\cot^2 \theta=\csc^2\theta

If we divide a term by itself, it will always yield 1.

Therefore, divide each term in the first equation by sin²θ:


\implies (\sin^2 \theta)/(\sin^2 \theta)+(\cos^2 \theta)/(\sin^2 \theta)=(1)/(\sin^2 \theta)


\implies 1+(\cos^2 \theta)/(\sin^2 \theta)=(1)/(\sin^2 \theta)


\boxed{\begin{minipage}{4 cm}\underline{Trigonometric Identities}\\\\$\cot \theta=(\cos \theta)/(\sin \theta)\\\\\csc \theta=(1)/(\sin \theta)$\\\end{minipage}}

Use the trigonometric identities for cot and cosec:


\implies 1+(\cos^2 \theta)/(\sin^2 \theta)=(1)/(\sin^2 \theta)


\implies 1+\left((\cos \theta)/(\sin \theta)\right)^2=\left((1)/(\sin \theta)\right)^2


\implies 1+(\cot \theta)^2=(\csc \theta)^2


\implies 1+\cot^2 \theta=\csc^2 \theta

Thus proving that sin²θ + cos²θ = 1 should be divided by sin²θ to yield

1 + cot²θ = csc²θ.

User Nirav Joshi
by
2.9k points
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.