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5 votes
Is f(x)=(
(1)/(e))^x a exponential function?

User Cubefox
by
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1 Answer

5 votes

Answer:

Yes.

Explanation:

It can be noticed that 1/e can be written as e^(-1). Whenever a number or a variable is shifted from the numerator to the denominator or vice versa, the power of that number or that variable becomes negative. This means that 1/e = e^(-1). Since f(x) = (1/e)^x, f(x) can be written as:

f(x) = (e^(-1))^x.

Since there are two powers and the base is same, so both the powers will be multiplied. Therefore:

f(x) = e^(-x).

It can be seen that e is involved in the function and it has a negative power of x, so this means that f(x) is a decreasing exponential function!!!

User Taran J
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8.7k points