Answer:
False
Step-by-step explanation:
The torque exerted by a force is given by:
![\tau=Fd sin \theta](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/physics/high-school/gikrruebr4oztq4cqrsy7sc11j7pdy8wjk.png)
where
F is the magnitude of the force
d is the distance between the point of application of the force and the pivot
is the angle between the directions of F and d
We see that the magnitude of the torque depends on 3 factors. In this problem, we have 2 forces of equal magnitude (so, equal F). Moreover, one of the forces (let's call it force 1) acts farther from the pivot than force 2, so we have
![d_1 > d_2](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/physics/high-school/kjqa1ird5dgazgrzp7b34r4zxcazx9skzk.png)
However, this does not mean that force 1 produces a greater torque. In fact, it also depends on the angle at which the force is applied. For instance, if the first force is applied parallel to d, then we have
![\theta_1 =0\\sin \theta=0](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/physics/high-school/8fssuqb10gwnnwi9osk0ylrepqzkz66c44.png)
and the torque produced by this force would be zero.
So, the statement is false.