Answer:
Yes, they are.
Step-by-step explanation:
1. - If they're equivalent, we can multiply 3 and 7 by the same number to obtain 18 and 42 respectively, and we can also divide 18 and 42 by that same number to obtain 3 and 7 respectively.
2. - Also, the result obtained by dividing 7 by 3 and 42 by 18 will be the same.
Demonstration:
1. -
![3 * 6 = 18\:and\:7*6 = 42\\18 / 6 = 3\:and\:42 / 6 = 7\\](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/middle-school/4p16e8o1juql1zladfajco2aoyjgpcwt5r.png)
2. -
![(3)/(7) = 0,429\:and\:(18)/(42) = 0,429](https://img.qammunity.org/2020/formulas/mathematics/middle-school/daugrslqcfcm7dbvfayg8ahnqx61zeg7a7.png)
Hope it helped,
BioTeacher101