1 Answer

Dereckson · Answer 1 · 2020-01-23T16:13:37+0000

Answer:

(LM)/(LN)=(PQ)/(PR)

Explanation:

I think the second Q on the base is R.

Then the side LM corresponds to the side PQ and the side LN corresponds to the side PR. Therefore we have the proportion:

$\begin{matrix}LM&\to&PQ\\\underline{\ \ \ \ \ }&=&\underline{\ \ \ \ \ }\\LN&\to&PR\end{matrix}$

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