Can someone help me !

asked Feb 15, 2021 150k views

5 votes

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5 votes

The answer is g
Because angles 1 and angle 3 are corresponding

Luca Braglia answered Feb 17, 2021

4.3k points

2 votes

Angle 1 and Angle 3

This is because the two angels are congruent due to the consecutive angles theorem,

Aaron Beall answered Feb 21, 2021

4.8k points

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